BCCCP: Acute Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding Critical Care Questions
Quiz Summary
0 of 10 Questions completed
Questions:
Information
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading…
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You must first complete the following:
Results
Results
0 of 10 Questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 point(s), (0)
Earned Point(s): 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Point(s): 0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- BCCCP, 1 Critical Care, 1A Critical Illness, Gastroenterology, Acute Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding, Application, Level: 2, last reviewed-2025-07-17, 2B Pharmacotherapy, 2B Pharmacotherapy 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Current
- Review
- Answered
- Correct
- Incorrect
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 62-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit for severe pneumonia complicated by acute respiratory distress syndrome. He has required intubation and has been on mechanical ventilation (assist-control mode, PEEP 10 cm H₂O) for the past 3 days. He remains hemodynamically unstable, receiving a continuous norepinephrine infusion via a central line to maintain a mean arterial pressure >65 mmHg. He is NPO with a nasogastric tube in place. He has no history of gastrointestinal bleeding or liver disease. Platelet count is 180,000/µL and INR is 1.1. According to evidence-based guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate agent to initiate for stress ulcer prophylaxis?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 65-year-old man is admitted to the ICU for severe sepsis secondary to pneumonia. He is intubated on assist-control ventilation and receiving a norepinephrine infusion at 0.1 mcg/kg/min through a central line. Early enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube has been running at goal rate for 24 hours. He is not currently receiving any acid-suppressive stress ulcer prophylaxis. During morning rounds, a single guaiac-positive gastric aspirate is noted. His vital signs are stable: HR 88 bpm, BP 118/72 mmHg, SpO₂ 96%. His hemoglobin 6 hours ago was 10.2 g/dL (admission 24 hours ago 10.5 g/dL). He has no history of peptic ulcer disease or coagulopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
In critically ill patients receiving hydrophilic medications, which of the following pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic changes most commonly necessitates an increased initial loading dose?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 65-year-old man with septic shock secondary to community-acquired pneumonia is admitted to the ICU. He develops acute kidney injury (serum creatinine 3.2 mg/dL, estimated GFR ≈20 mL/min/1.73 m2) and is started on continuous veno-venous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF). He requires initiation of vancomycin, an antibiotic that is primarily renally cleared. Which of the following dosing strategies is most appropriate to minimize drug accumulation while maintaining efficacy?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 65-year-old man in the medical ICU with ventilator-associated MRSA pneumonia is started on intravenous vancomycin. He has fluctuating renal function (baseline creatinine 1.2 mg/dL, peak 1.8 mg/dL) and is on a continuous infusion protocol with Bayesian software support. According to the 2020 IDSA/ASHP/PIDS/SIDP consensus guidelines, which monitoring strategy is most appropriate to optimize efficacy and minimize toxicity in this patient?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
In critically ill adult patients with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) bloodstream infections, which of the following intravenous anti-MRSA agents does NOT require routine serum drug level (therapeutic drug) monitoring?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 45-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following elective spinal surgery. He is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube at goal rate. He was extubated on postoperative day 1 and has not required mechanical ventilation for more than 48 hours. His current medications include pantoprazole 40 mg IV daily, initiated on admission. He has no history of gastrointestinal bleeding or coagulopathy, and his hemoglobin is 13.8 g/dL. Based on this patient’s clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate management of his pantoprazole therapy?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 67-year-old man in the ICU is being treated for hospital-acquired pneumonia with vancomycin and piperacillin–tazobactam. Over the past 48 hours, his serum creatinine has risen from 1.0 to 2.5 mg/dL, he is oliguric, and shows signs of fluid overload. Blood cultures remain negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management of his suspected drug-induced acute kidney injury?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 75-year-old woman with end-stage heart failure and chronic kidney disease is admitted to the ICU with acute decompensation. Her prognosis is poor despite maximal medical therapy, and the ICU team is considering initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) and advanced mechanical ventilation. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a multidisciplinary goals-of-care discussion in this scenario?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 62-year-old man was admitted 5 days ago with severe septic shock requiring mechanical ventilation and a continuous norepinephrine infusion via a central line. He was started on pantoprazole 40 mg IV daily for stress ulcer prophylaxis on admission. This morning he was successfully extubated, norepinephrine has been discontinued for 24 hours, and he is tolerating continuous enteral nutrition at goal rate. His vital signs and hemoglobin (12.5 g/dL) are stable. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his stress ulcer prophylaxis?
CorrectIncorrect